firstfrost (
firstfrost) wrote2005-06-28 04:22 pm
Rant from lunch
Okay, whose fault is this? What were they thinking? It's like an Easter egg or something....
| I hit | him | with the ball | I hit | her | with the ball |
| I took | his | ball | I took | her | ball |
| The ball is | his | The ball is | hers |
Could I have a side of context with that rant, please?
Re: Could I have a side of context with that rant, please?
It doesn't have any more context than that. :)
Re: Could I have a side of context with that rant, please?
Re: Could I have a side of context with that rant, please?
Bugs me. Try explaining it to kids. "No, 'amn't' is not a word. But good try!"
Re: Could I have a side of context with that rant, please?
I guess it doesn't bother me because I see it as the whole chart of pronouns. I wonder if we started with three for each gender and then smooshed them.
We could invent & use extra pronouns! {him, his, hisen} {hera, her, hers}
Re: Could I have a side of context with that rant, please?
The thing that it makes me wonder is whether there are actually more distinct parts of speech than three, and I just don't *notice* them because in all cases one word covers the different parts.
Like, um, are there other languages in which you would use a different pronoun for any of "my nose" "my car" "my idea" "my mother" (concrete v. abstract, possession v. relation, connected v. not...)? I happily think of those as all the same part of speech, but perhaps if I were raised with a different language, I wouldn't.
pronouns
As far as English goes, though: part of what you're pointing at is the remains of noun cases. German and Latin have them; English only makes a token wave at them these days. I probably can't call up all the Latin ones, not actually knowing Latin, but German has: nomenative (*He* hit the ball), accusative (the ball hit *him*), dative (give *him* the ball), and genetive (*his* ball). It also lets you say "the ball is his," which is a little different, but I don't know what that's called offhand; that's different from declining nouns, though.
In German/Latin, of course, nouns also have gender, so the pronoun in "his daughter" is different from that in "his son."
But in German, there's still some overlap where different-meaning pronouns use the same word. (Including "ihr" for the "her" in "he hit her" and the "her" in "her ball"--except the latter gets a gender ending tacked on for the gender of "ball", where the former doesn't. Wierder is "sie" = "she", "sie" = "they" (as long as they include at least one man), and Sie (with a capital S) = "you (formal)".
Re: Could I have a side of context with that rant, please?
Latin and Russian do a lot more casing than English does, and French does a little more than English but much less than those. Learning the grammar of one of those languages is actually really helpful for learning about English.
Re: Could I have a side of context with that rant, please?
I was also thinking of things like Spanish having different verbs for the transient "to be" versus the permanent "to be" in a way that English doesn't.
Re: Could I have a side of context with that rant, please?
Noun/pronoun cases in English often all have the same form and usualky have far fewer forms than cases. Ditto for verb tenses. Latin has piles of them. :)